The somatic nervous system most specifically belongs to which division of the nervoussystem?a.
peripheralb. autonomicc. sensoryd.
The basic structural unit of the nervous system is thea. myelinb. axonc.
Which neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the motor end plate of a neuromuscularjunction?a. norepinephrineb.
acetylcholinec. serotonind. dopamine
The sympathetic nervous system would contribute toa. increased heart rateb. skeletal muscle contractionc. skeletal muscle inhibitiond. increased energy conservation
Which of the following is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?a. increased mental activityb. higher blood glucose levelsc.
coronary arteriole constrictiond. bronchodilation
c. coronary arteriole constriction
Reflexes associated with Golgi tendon organs prevent skeletal muscles froma. stretching too farb. contracting with too much forcec.
accumulating too much lactic acidd. exercising too long
b. contracting with too much force
Sensory impulses that result in controlled and coordinated movements are integrated inthea. spinal cordb. brain stemc. cerebellumd. cerebrum
Muscles controlling fine movements have _________ muscle fibers per alpha-motor neuron. Muscles with more general functions have _________ fibers per alpha-motor neuron.a. a small number of/a small number ofb. a small number of/manyc. many/a small number ofd. many/many
b. a small number of/many
What statement is true of muscle spindles?a.
They sense tension in muscles; they inhibit the contracting muscles and excite the antagonist muscles. b. They supply information on the length and rate of change in length. c. They initiate movements of a sustained and repetitive nature. d.
They stimulate reflexive muscle relaxation.
b. They supply information on the length and rate of change in length
Sensory impulses that terminate in the spinal cord typically result in a conscious movement.a. true b. false
What statement is NOT true of the brain stem?a. All sensory and motor nerves pass through it as they relay information between the brain and the spinal cord. b. It contains the major autonomic regulatory centers that exert control over the respiratory and cardiovascular systems. c.
It is the site of origin of all the cranial nerves. d. The reticular formation runs the entire length of the brain stem and influences nearly all areas of the central nervous system.
c. It is the site of origin of all the cranial nerves.
Neurons in the _________ let us consciously control movement of our skeletal muscles.a. basal ganglia b.
pyramidal cells c. primary motor cortex d. premotor cortex
c. primary motor cortex
The sum of all changes in the membrane potential must equal or exceed the threshold to cause sufficient depolarization to generate an action potential.a. true b. false
What statement best describes dendrites?a. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses away from the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them. b. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them. c. They are the neuron’s transmitters; they carry the impulses away from the cell body, and most neurons contain only one of them. d.
They are the neuron’s transmitters; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain only one of them.
b. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them
The central nervous system transmits information to various parts of the body through the motor, or efferent, division of the peripheral nervous system.
a. true b. false
The _________ receive(s) all sensory input entering the brain.
a. pyramidal cells b. primary motor cortex c. cerebellum d. diencephalon
What nervous system prepares your body to face a crisis, regulating the fight-or-flight response?a.
parasympathetic nervous system b. central nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. sensory-motor nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
Which statement is NOT true of an action potential?a. Any time depolarization reaches or exceeds the threshold, an action potential will result.
b. An action potential is a rapid and substantial depolarization of the neuron’s membrane. c.
An action potential always begins as a graded potential. d. An action potential is usually just a local event, so the depolarization does not spread very far along the neuron.
d. An action potential is usually just a local event, so the depolarization does not spread very far along the neuron.
The autonomic nervous system regulates all of the following functions EXCEPTa. heart rate b.
respiration c. blood distribution d. motor control
The velocity of a nerve impulse transmission is primarily determined bya. myelination and diameter of the neurons b. absolute refractory and relative refractory c. number of muscle fibers per alpha-motor neuron d. sodium concentration
a. myelination and diameter of the neurons
A nerve impulse can be transmitted across a synapse in only one direction.a.
true b. false
Depolarization occurs any time the charge difference in a neuron increases, moving from the resting membrane potential to an even more negative number.a.
true b. false
Glycogen is stored in the _________ until needed.a. heart or liver b. smooth muscles or pancreas c. liver or muscle
The glycolytic system has a tremendous energy-yielding capacity, so it is the primary method of energy production during endurance events.a. true b. false
A healthy body uses little protein during rest and exercise.a. true b. false
Energy for muscular activity and cellular operations is primarily derived froma. carbohydrate, fat, and sodium b. carbohydrate, fat, and protein c. carbohydrate, iron, and water d. carbohydrate, protein, and water
carbohydrate, fat, and protein
When phosphorylation occurs without the aid of oxygen, it is called aerobic metabolism.a. true b.
NADH molecules, formed in the _____________, cannot directly enter the mitochondria.a.
nucleus b. sarcoplasm c. electron transport chain
Lactate produced during exercise can be utilized by which of the following tissues?a. adjacent muscle fibers b. heart c. liver d.
brain e. all of these
e. all of these
An example of an energy substrate isa. ATPb. palmitic acidc. phosphofructokinased. creatine kinase
b. palmitic acid
Which of these substrate stores in the body can provide the most overall kilocalories?a.
glycogenb. phospholipidsc. proteinsd. triglycerides
Protein can serve as an energy substrate ifa. certain amino acids are presentb. it is utilized by the brainc. it is phosphorylated firstd.
it is first converted to glucose
d. it is first converted to glucose
Which of the following is responsible for lowering the activation energy of a chemicalreaction?a. ATPb. additional buildup of substratec. enzyme activityd. ADP accumulation
c. enzyme activity
The anaerobic glycolytic system would be the primary source of ATP for which runningevent?a.
100 m sprintb. 800 m (1/2 mi) runc. 3,200 m (2 mi) rund. marathon
In the absence of oxygen, the final product of glycolysis isa. pyruvic acidb. acetyl-CoAc. glucose-1-phosphated.
d. lactic acid
For aerobic metabolism, free fatty acids must be converted to acetyl-CoA viaa. the Krebs cycleb. the electron transport chainc. beta-oxidationd. the citric acid cycle
Taking into account both oxygen requirements and ATP yield, which substrate is moreefficient, fat or glucose?a.
Fat is more efficient.b. Glucose is more efficient.c. They are equally efficient.
b. Glucose is more efficient.
In which part of the cell does oxidative phosphorylation occur?a. plasma membraneb. nucleusc. cytosold. mitochondria
An athlete with a high percentage of type II fibers would exhibit which characteristics?a. more mitochondria, higher oxidative enzymesb.
more mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymesc. fewer mitochondria, higher oxidative enzymesd. fewer mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymes
d. fewer mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymes
Smooth muscle is calleda. voluntary muscle and makes up most of the heart’s structure b.
involuntary muscle and makes up most of the heart’s structure c. voluntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels d. involuntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels
d. involuntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels
Cardiac muscle isa. involuntary muscle and is found in the heart, the blood vessels, and the walls of many internal organs b. voluntary muscle and is found in the heart and the blood vessels c. involuntary muscle and is found only in the heart d. voluntary muscle and is found only in the heart
involuntary muscle and is found only in the heart
Type IIa fibers are the most frequently recruited muscle fibers.a. true b. false
Skeletal muscle isa.
voluntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton b. voluntary muscle and is attached to both the skeleton and the internal organs c. involuntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton d. involuntary muscle and is attached to both the skeleton and the internal organs
a. voluntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton
The force of a muscle contraction is graded in what type of muscle contraction?a. concentric b. static c. eccentric d.
all of these
d. all of these
Myosin ATPase is the enzyme that splits ATP to release energy for driving contraction.a.
true b. false
Which statement best describes the three main types of muscle action?a. concentric, in which the muscle decelerates; static (isometric), in which the muscle speed stays the same; and eccentric, in which the muscle accelerates b. concentric, in which the muscle shortens; static (isometric), in which the muscle contracts but the joint angle is unchanged; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens c. concentric, in which the muscle acts in a circular fashion; dynamic, in which joint movement is produced; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens d. concentric, in which the muscle weakens; static (isometric), in which the muscle strength stays the same; and eccentric, in which the muscle strengthens
b. concentric, in which the muscle shortens; static (isometric), in which the muscle contracts but the joint angle is unchanged; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens
Type II fibers have a fast form of ATPase, which means ATP is split more rapidly in type II fibers than in type I fibers.
a. true b. false
What does not help increase force production?a. using an optimal joint angle when performing the movement b. recruiting more motor units c. increasing the frequency of motor unit stimulation d. executing the movement rapidly in eccentric actions
executing the movement rapidly in eccentric actions
A series of three stimuli in rapid sequence, before complete muscle relaxation from the first stimulus, is calleda. twitch b. summation c. tetanus d.
Type II fibers have a more highly developed sarcoplasmic reticulum than do type I fibers.a. true b. false
The difference in the size of motor units means that when a single type I alpha-motor neuron stimulates its fibers, far more muscle fibers contract than when a single type II alpha-motor neuron stimulates its fibers.a. true b.
People who have a predominance of type II fibers in their leg muscles tend to be better at aerobic endurance activities than people who have a high percentage of type I fibers.a. true b.
Training may induce a change of about _____ in the percentage of type I and type II fibers.a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
Because type II fibers are usually larger than type I fibers, they generate more force and have more muscle fibers per motor unit than do type I muscle fibers.a. true b. false
What is the most critical mineral in the process of excitation-contraction coupling?a. manganese b. iron c.
calcium d. phosphorus e. all of these f.
none of these
Muscle found in the walls of the bladder is an example ofa. cardiac muscleb. skeletal musclec. smooth muscle
c. smooth muscle
Which of these is the correct order of skeletal muscle hierarchical organization, fromlargest structure to smallest structure?a.
muscle fasciculus, entire muscle, myofibril, muscle fiberb. entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibrilc. muscle fiber, myofibril, entire muscle, muscle fasciculusd. myofibril, muscle fiber, muscle fasciculus, entire muscle
entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril
Ca2+ ions (essential for contraction) are stored in thea. sarcoplasmb. sarcolemmac. sarcoplasmic reticulumd. T-tubules
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which protein is sensitive to Ca2+ and thereby helps initiate contraction?a. actinb.
myosinc. troponind. tropomyosin
The process of plasmalemma depolarization involves which ion?a. Na+b.
K+c. Ca2+d. Cl-
Which is the correct order of events in a contraction?a.
T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ gathered in, cross-bridging, Ca2+ releasedb. Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potentialc. cross-bridging, Ca2+ released, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potentiald. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in
d. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in
ATP is required fora.
muscle contraction onlyb. muscle relaxation onlyc. both muscle contraction and muscle relaxationd. neither muscle contraction nor muscle relaxation
c. both muscle contraction and muscle relaxation
Type I muscle fibersa. have a high oxidative capacityb.
store large quantities of glycogenc. generate force quicklyd. fatigue quickly
a. have a high oxidative capacity
The speed of muscle fiber contraction is determined primarily by thea. amount of actin and myosinb.
amount of actin ATPasec. diameter of the muscle fiberd. speed of myosin ATPase
d. speed of myosin ATPase
Why does a sarcomere that is too short or too stretched produce less force?a. Thick filaments get damaged.b.
Thin filaments become unraveled.c. Not as many cross-bridges can form.d.
The reduction in force is negligible and can be ignored.
c. Not as many cross-bridges can form.
If you want to measure your BMR, you should NOTa. be in bed, asleep, by 10:00 pm and wake up at 7:00 am b. eat supper at 6:00 pm and plan to wake up at 7:00 am c. remain in a supine, resting position when you wake up d. have a glass of warm milk at 10:00 pm to put you to sleep by midnight so that you can wake up at 7:00 am
have a glass of warm milk at 10:00 pm to put you to sleep by midnight so that you can wake up at 7:00 am BMR is your rate of energy expenditure at rest in a supine position, measured immediately after at least 8 hours of sleep and at least 12 hours of fasting. It reflects the minimum amount of energy required to carry on your essential physiological functions.
The measure regarded by most as the best single measurement of cardiorespiratory endurance and aerobic fitness is known by all of the following terms EXCEPTa. VO2max b. VO2 drift c. maximal oxygen uptake d.
b. VO2 drift VO2max, maximal oxygen uptake, and aerobic capacity all mean the same thing. VO2 drift refers to a slow increase in VO2 during prolonged, submaximal, constant-power-output exercise.
In events lasting longer than a few seconds, glycogen stored in the _________ is the primary energy source for ATP synthesis.a. liver b. heart c. pancreas d.
Sprints in running, cycling, and swimming do not result in accumulation of lactic acid.a. true b.
What factor does NOT affect total daily caloric expenditure?a. age b. sex c. size d. height
If maximal adaptation to VO2max is achieved in 8 to 12 weeks of training, yet endurance performance continues to improve, which is most likely the cause for the continued improvement? a. reductions in mitochondrial mass b. increase in the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers c. increased RMR d.
increased lactate threshold
d. increased lactate threshold
If maximal adaptation to VO2max is achieved in 8 to 12 weeks of training, yet endurance performance continues to improve, which is most likely the cause for the continued improvement? a. reductions in mitochondrial mass b. increase in the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers c. increased RMR d. increased lactate threshold
d. increased lactate threshold
The rate at which your body uses energy is referred to as your _______________.a.
aerobic metabolism b. oxidative capacity c. metabolic rate d. caloric expenditure
c. metabolic rate
Lactic acid may actually have beneficial effects on exercise performance, contrary to what most exercisers think.a.
true b. false
A high lactate threshold indicates ___________________.a.
very good endurance capabilities b. a high consumption of fat c. a high rate of protein metabolism d. greater muscular strength
very good endurance capabilities
Fatigue is different from muscle weakness or damage, because it is reversible with rest.a. true b. false
The point at which blood lactate begins to accumulate substantially above resting concentrations during exercise of increasing intensity is known as ____________.a. EPOC b. lactate threshold c.
aerobic capacity d. basal metabolic rate
b. lactate threshold
What does NOT affect a person’s basal metabolic rate?a. age b.
body temperature c. calcium consumption d. fat-free mass
c. calcium consumption
Most researchers now prefer to use the term resting metabolic rate (RMR) instead of basal metabolic rate (BMR), because RMR is an easier measurement to take than BMR.a. true b.
When muscles appear to be nearly exhausted, playing music will not help increase the strength of muscle contraction.a. true b. false
Direct calorimetry is widely regarded as a useful tool for exercise measurements.a. true b.
The role of the CNS in most types of fatigue is to limit exercise performance ____________.a. based on metabolic exhaustion b. as a protective mechanism c.
based on perceptions of fatigue d. all of the above
b. as a protective mechanism
Most studies have reported that glycogen is spared when carbohydrate is ingested during prolonged, strenuous exercise.a. true b. false
What is NOT thought to be associated with DOMS?a. Intracellular calcium level increases and activates enzymes that destroy the z-lines. b. The by-products of cell breakdown and the inflammatory response stimulate free nerve endings.
c. High tension in the contractile-elastic component of muscle results in structural damage. d. Loss of spinal-reflex control of alpha motor neurons during eccentric exercise over-stimulates muscle fibers, resulting in damage.
d. Loss of spinal-reflex control of alpha motor neurons during eccentric exercise over-stimulates muscle fibers, resulting in damage.
EAMC is an acronym for ____________.
a. exercise-associated muscle condition b. exercise-associated muscle cramps c. exercise-accentuated muscle condition d. excessive-activity muscle cramps
b. exercise-associated muscle cramps
A treadmill test, in which subjects ran on a treadmill for 45 min on two separate days, clearly demonstrated that eccentric action is the primary initiator of DOMS. It was found that muscle soreness was associated with ____________.a.
level running b. uphill running c. downhill running d. none of these; the test was actually done on a bicycle ergometer
c. downhill running
Which of these is NOT true of delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?a. In the short term, DOMS reduces the force-generating capacity of the affected muscles.
b. DOMS is likely necessary to maximize the training response. c. Intense concentric exercise is the most likely cause of DOMS. d. DOMS may actually result from structural damage in the muscle
c. Intense concentric exercise is the most likely cause of DOMS.
To prevent EAMCs, the athlete should do all of these EXCEPT ____________.a. maintain electrolyte balance b. stretch every four or five workouts c. hydrate properly d.
reduce exercise intensity and duration
b. stretch every four or five workouts
A disadvantage of direct calorimetry is thata. energy expenditure during prolonged exercise cannot be measuredb. the heat generated by exercise equipment must be taken into accountc. it cannot be used for measurements of resting energy expenditured. it is less accurate than indirect calorimetry
the heat generated by exercise equipment must
The body utilizes ___________ oxygen when metabolizing carbohydrate compared tofat.a. much moreb. somewhat morec.
the same amount ofd. less
As RER values approach 1.
0,a. the body is at restb. exertion levels are moderatec. glucose/glycogen metabolism is maximald. glycogen is depleted and metabolism is mostly of fat
glucose/glycogen metabolism is maximal
Which of the following is not an important predictor of a successful endurance athlete?a. high lactate thresholdb. high type II fiber percentagec. high VO2maxd. high economy of effort
b. high type II fiber %
What is the term used to describe the phenomenon that occurs when oxygen supply doesnot increase to meet the oxygen need at the onset of exercise?a. oxygen deficitb. oxygen debtc.
oxygen shortfalld. oxygen insufficiency
a. oxygen deficit
During endurance exercise, fatigue correlates best witha. low glycogen storesb. low rates of glycogen depletionc. high rates of glycogen depletiond. high rates of gluconeogenesis
Glycogen depletion from muscle fiber types occurs in which order?a. IIa, IIx, Ib. IIx, IIa, Ic. I, IIa, IIxd. I, IIx, IIa
c. I, IIa, IIx
Found in skeletal musclesa.
Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
Take longer than other muscle fibers to reach peak tension.
a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
a. type I
Predominantly contains a slow form of myosin ATPase.
a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
a. type I
Has more highly developed sarcolasmic reticulum, which helps deliver calcium to the muscle when stimulated.a. Type Ib. Type IIc.
b. type II
Has a motor neuron with a small cell body and can innervate a cluster of 10-180 muscle fibers.a. Type Ib. Type IIc.
a. type I
Predominantly contains a fast form of myosin ATPase.a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
Reaches peak tension faster and collectively generates more force than other fiber types.a. Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
b. type II
Has three subtypesa. Type Ib. Type IIc. Both
b. type II
What term is used to describe the process by which tension of a given motor unit can vary from a twitch to tetanus by increasing the frequency of stimulation of a motor unit?a. frequency adjustment b. stimulation synchronization c. rate-coding d. summation
c. rate coding frequency of stimulation (frequencies range from a twitch response based on a single electrical stimulus to the summation of a series of stimuli to tetanus, or peak force, resulting from continued stimulation at higher frequencies)
Which statement is true?a. More force can be generated when more motor units are activated. b. Type I motor units contain more muscle fibers than type II motor units. c. Larger muscles tend to have fewer muscle fibers. d. Type II motor units generate less force than type I motor units
a. More force can be generated when more motor units are activated.the types of motor units activated (type II motor units generate more force than type I motor units, because a type II motor unit contains more muscle fibers than a type I motor unit)
A sarcomere generates the most force when _________________.a. it is fully stretched, producing more pulling power b. it has optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, producing good cross-bracing interaction c. it is in its shortest, most powerful position d. its thick and thin filaments are not touching
b. it has optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, producing good cross-bracing interactionfiber and sarcomere length (optimal force is generated at the length where optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, maximizing cross-bridge interaction)
Maximal force development decreases progressively at higher speeds in _________ contractions.a. eccentric b. isometric c. static d. concentric
d. concentricspeed of contraction (concentric contractions need slow speed of contraction for maximum force development, eccentric contractions need fast speed of contraction for maximum force development)