INFORMATION HANDOUT Central Recruitment and Promotion Dept. , Corporate Centre, Tulsiani Chambers, 1st Floor, ( West Wing), 212, Free Press Journal Marg, Nariman Point – Mumbai 400 021. INTRODUCTION This Booklet gives you detailed information about the objective type Competitive examination for recruitment of Probationary Officers in State Bank of India. This post was advertised in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar issue dated 9-15 February, 2013 and on the Bank’s website www. tatebankofindia. com and www. sbi. co. in. The terms and conditions, period of probation, emoluments etc. were given in the advertisement. You should ensure that you are eligible in respect of age, educational qualification, nationality as stipulated in the advertisement. Details of tests are given ahead in the booklet. 1. 2. 3. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Particulars to be Noted : Please note carefully your Roll Number, Registration Number, date, time and venue for the examination given in the call letter. Punctuality in Attendance : Candidates should be present at the examination hall at the time given in the call letter.
Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall. Call letter to be Surrendered : Affix firmly a copy of your recent passport size photograph in the space provided for it in the call letter and bring it with you alongwith photo identity proof in original and a photocopy when you come to the venue for the examination. You will not be permitted to appear for the examination if you come without the photo identity proof in original and a photocopy, call letter or without the photograph affixed on the call letter.
You will be required to sign in the space provided for candidate’s signature on your call letter in the presence of the invigilator in the examination hall. Invigilator will take your thumb impression on the call letter while collecting the same. You should hand over your call letter alongwith the photocopy of photo identity proof to the invigilator in the examination hall, when he/she collects the call letters from the candidates. Compliance with Instructions : You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and the invigilators at all the stages of the examination for which you have been called.
If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall. Use of Books, Notes Calculators & Cell Phones : No calculator separate or with watch, cell phone, books, slide rulers, note books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall. Sample Answersheet and Instructions for filling information on it : A sample answersheet is attached to this booklet at the end. Fill in the required biodata and other information on this answersheet for your practice and bring it with you to the examination hall.
You will get a similar answersheet in the examination hall, on which you will have to copy the biodata and other information already filled in by you on the sample answersheet. How to fill in the information on the answersheet is explained in this booklet elsewhere and also shown on the specimen answersheet. Use of HB Pencil and Ball Pen : You are required to fill in the information on the answersheet which you will get in the examination hall, by HB pencil and ball-point pen. You are required to mark your answers by HB pencil (the commonly used pencil) for objective type tests.
Therefore, you should bring with you two HB pencils, a good quality eraser, a sharpener and a ball-point pen. You are advised to bring two pencils to avoid mending a pencil during the examination as you may lose time. Use ball-point pen for filling up the information only in boxes 1-10 on Side 1. Use HB pencil only, for filling up information in boxes 12-26 on side 1 of the answersheets and box 27 on side 2 of the answersheet. All the answers on side 2 should be marked by using HB pencil only. Handling answersheet : Please handle your answersheet with extreme care and keep it dust free.
If it is mutilated, torn, folded, wrinkled or rolled, it may not be valued by the machine. Answersheets and question booklets will be supplied by the organisation. After the test is over, you should hand over all the test material i. e. the answersheet and question booklet to the invigilator before leaving the room. Any candidate who does not return any of the test materials or is found to attempt to take or pass on the question booklet or answersheet inside or outside the examination hall will be disqualified.
Fill in all the information asked for on the answersheet and question booklet otherwise your answersheet will not be assessed. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Do not leave your seat unless you are allowed. 11. Do your rough work, if any, on the question booklet and not on the answersheet. 12. Check all the pages and questions in your question booklet. If something is missing or not properly printed request your invigilator to give you another booklet of the same Form Number. 13. The Question Booklets are sealed.
When you are asked to START, gently cut-open the cover page from your right hand side using blunt end of pencil, to open the booklet. Do not remove the staple pins on your left hand side. If you do so all the pages of the booklet will get loosened and separated. 2 14. There will be Penalty for wrong answers marked by you in the objective tests. There are five alternative answers to every question of all the tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0. 25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
If for any question you give more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given answers happens to be right and there will be same penalty as above for that question. If a question is left blank, i. e. no answer is given by you, there will be no penalty for that question. If the total of the penalty for test is in fraction, it will be rounded off to the nearest integer. You should therefore be careful in marking your answers. 15. This booklet is just a guideline for the kind of examination you are going to take and the sample questions are only illustrative and not exhaustive.
In actual examination besides these, there may be some other types of questions also. 16. Copying / Misconduct / Unfair Practices : If a candidate is/has been found guilty of – i) Copying or allowing copying; ii) Using unfair means during the test; iii) Impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person; iv) Misbehaving at the examination venue; v) Taking away question booklet/answersheet from examination hall. vi) Resorting to any other irregular or improper means; vii) Obtaining support of his/her candidature by any means.
He/she will, in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable to, (a) Disqualification from selection process at any stage (b) Be debarred permanently/for specific period from any examination or selection by the Bank . Candidates are warned against filling up/furnishing false, tampered/fabricated information or suppressing material information in Bio-data sheet of Answer Book. 17. Travelling Allowance shall not be paid : No travelling allowance or other expenses in connection with the examination will be paid.
Please also note that the call letter does not constitute an offer of employment by the Central Recruitment and Promotion Department. Phase I : Written Examination : The written examination will consist of objective and descriptive type of tests. (1) OBJECTIVE TEST Sr. No. 1. 2. 3. 4. Name of the Test Reasoning (High Level) Data Analysis and Interpretation General Awareness, Marketing and Computers English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc. ) No. of Questions 50 50 50 50 Max. Marks 50 50 50 50 Composite time of 120 minutes Time Allotted
Composite time for all the above tests will be Two hours (120 minutes). You may attempt the tests / questions in any order you like. However in your interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one of the tests because the candidates are required to qualify in the Objective Tests by securing passing marks, in each of the tests, to be decided by the Bank on the basis of the performance of all the competing candidates taken together in each test to a minimum required level for each category. The questions in the tests at Sr. No. , 2 and 3 will be printed in Hindi and English. Descriptive Paper : This is to check your proficiency in English Knowledge. It would consist of comprehension, letter writing, essay writing, precis writing etc. You would be given sixty minutes time for this test. Total marks for this paper are 50. The candidates are required to qualify in the Descriptive Test by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank. Descriptive Test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who have scored qualifying marks in the Objective Tests as stated above.
The merit list of written examination will be based on the aggregate of the marks obtained by the candidates in Objective and Descriptive test. 3 Phase II : Group Discussion & Interview : Max. Marks [ GD–20, Interview – 30 ] The aggregate marks of candidates qualifying in both objective test and descriptive test will be arranged in descending order in each category and the candidates in order of merit, subject to 3 times the number of vacancies in each category, will be called for Group Discussion and Interview.
The qualifying marks in Group Discussion & interview will be as decided by the Bank. Final Selection The candidates will have to qualify both in Phase I & II separately. Marks secured by the candidates in Written Test (out of 250 marks maximum) are converted to out of 75 and marks secured in GD & Interview (out of 50 marks maximum) are converted to out of 25. The final merit list is arrived at after aggregating converted marks of Written Test and Group Discussion & Interview out of 100 for each category. The selection will be made from the top merit ranked candidates in each category.
Results of the candidates who have qualified for Phase II and thereafter, the list of candidates finally selected will be available on the Bank’s website. Final select list will be published in Employment News/Rozgar Samachar. Sample Questions : Below are given some sample questions for each of these tests. The type of questions are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In actual test you may find questions on some or all these types and also questions on the type not mentioned here. Reasoning (High Level) This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with computer.
It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions. Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different. Q. 1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow Of the five, ‘black, ‘red’, ‘green’ and ‘yellow’ form a group as they are names of colours. ‘paint’ is not the name of a colour. Therefore, (4) is the answer. Now try to solve the following questions. Q. 2. 1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST Q. 3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer. Q. 4. Foot : man : : hoof : ? (1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe In the above example, ‘hoof’ has the same relationship with ‘horse’ as ‘foot’ has to ‘man’. Hence the answer is (3).
Now study to solve the following questions. Q. 5. Day : Night : : Kind : ? (1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude Q. 6. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ? (1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat Now try the following questions. Q. 7. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer. (1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X Q. 8. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. ’ Which of the following inferences definitely follows from these statements ? (1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest (3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest (5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest Q. 9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A 1 B’ means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are the sales of the first and the second day respectively ? 1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2) (4) (S1 1 S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) None of these 4 Q. 10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed ? (I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (1) Only I (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II Q. 11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : I. All machines are windows. All windows are clouds. : I. All machines are clouds. Conclusions II. All clouds are machines. (1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow (4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows There may also be problems in the form of figures, designs and drawings. These may be of three types viz. 1) analogies, (2) classification and (3) series. 1. Analogies (I) : Try the following analogy type questions. Directions : In these questions, there are two sets of figures. The Problem Figures and the Answer Figures. The Problem Figures are presented in two units. The first unit contains two figures and the second unit contains one figure and a question mark in place of the second figure. You have to find out which one of the Answer Figures should be in place of the question mark. Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 12. Look at the first two Problem Figures. The second figure is related to the first figure in a certain way.
The elements in the second figure are double the elements in the first figure. The first figure is one square and the second figure is two squares. The third and fourth figures should have the same relationship as the first and the second have. That means the fourth figure should be double the third figure. The third figure is a circle; so the fourth should be two circles. Answer figure 5 has two circles. Therefore, the answer is 5. Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 13. Study the first and the second figures in the first unit of the Problem Figures. The first figure is made up of three lines and the second figure is made up of four lines.
That means the second figure has one line more than the first figure. The third figure in the second unit has four lines. Therefore, the fourth figure should have five lines. You will find that figure 1 is made up of five lines. Therefore, the answer is 1. Now attempt the following question. Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 14. Analogies (II) : In each of the following problems a related pair of figures is followed by five numbured pairs of figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.
Now study the following problems. Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 15. In the problem figure, the right hand element of the figure is related to the left hand element of the figure in a certain way. The right hand element has one side more than the left hand element. The pair in the Answer figure No. 5 has the same relationship i. e. the right hand element of the figure has one side more than the left hand element of the figure. Therefore, ‘5’ is the answer. 5 Q. 16. Problem Figures Answer Figures In the problem figure, the right hand element of the figure is related to the left hand element of the figure in a certain way.
Both the elements are rectangles, but the right hand element is horizontal while the left hand element is vertical. In the answer figure 2, both the elements of the figure are straight lines. The right hand element is horizontal while the left hand element is vertical. Therefore, (2) is the correct answer. Now attempt the following question : Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 17. 2. Classification : Study the following questions based on classification. Q. 18. Problem Figures In classification, the Problem Figures themselves are also the Answer Figures. Out of the five figures, four are similar in a certain way.
One figure is not like the other four. That means four figures form a group. The question is which one of the figures does not belong to this group ? For example, look at the Q. No. 18. Of the five figures, four are straight lines whereas one is a circle. The four lines form a group. The circle does not belong to this group. Therefore, the answer is the circle which is figure 1. Q. 19. Problem Figures Study the five figures. The first four figures form a group as they represent living beings while the fifth figure, the triangle, does not represent a living being. Therefore the answer is 5. Now attempt the following question.
Problem Figures Q. 20. 3. Series (l) Study the following problems based on series. Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 21. Note that the five figures given first at the left are called Problem Figures. The five figures given next are called Answer Figures. They are indicated by numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. The five Problem Figures make a series. That means they change from left to right in a specific order. The question is ‘If the figures continue to change in the same order, what should the sixth figure be ? In the example above, as you go from left to right, you find that the line across the Problem Figures is inclining towards left.
The question is, ‘if the line continues to incline further, what will be its next, i. e. sixth position ? ’ The answer would be it would fall further and be lying flat, ie. it will be horizontal. Answer Figure 4 has a line lying horizontal. Therefore, the answer is 4. Q. 22. Problem Figures Answer Figures Study the position of the dot in all the Problem Figures. Note that it keeps moving around the square in the clockwise directions. Where would it be next in the sixth position ? It would come back to the upper left corner. Therefore, the answer is 2. 6 Now solve the following questions. Q. 23.
Problem Figures Answer Figures Problem Figures Answer Figures Q. 24. 3. Series (ll) In each of the following problems, a series is established if the positions of the two out of five numbered figures are interchanged. The position of the first unnumbered figure remains the same. It is the beginnng of the series. The earlier of the two numbered figures whose positions are interchanged is the Answer. If it is not necessary to interchange the positions of figures to establish the series, write 5 as your answer. Remember that when the series is established, the figures change from left to right (i. . from the unnumbered figure to the last figure), in a specific order. Now study the following problems : Problem Figures Q. 25. In this problem, a series is already established. It is not necessary to interchange the positions of any two numbered figures. Therefore, mark (5) as the correct Answer. Problem Figures Q. 26. In this problem a series is established by interchanging the positions of figures (4) and (5). Therefore, Mark (4) as the correct Answer. Data Analysis and Interpretation This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. omputation, quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc. Q. 27-29. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below –––– Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination Written Examination Marks 260 & above 210 to 259 160 to 209 110 to 159 60 to 109 Below 60 Below 30 8 5 16 28 35 32 30-39 18 4 10 42 115 32 INTERVIEW MARKS 40-49 50-59 60-69 26 30 45 100 20 20 18 22 56 190 8 4 26 10 18 15 7 6 70 & above 4 9 9 5 5 2 Q. 27.
How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and interview ? (1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) None of these Q. 28. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the percentage of the qualifying marks ? (1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36 (4) above 63 (5) None of these Q. 29. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ? (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70 (4) 50 & above (5) None of these (1) 110-159 7 Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example : Q. 0. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ? (2) 10 (3) 60 (1) 6 Q. 31. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ? (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (1) 27114 (4) 610 (4) 32286 (5) None of these (5) None of these Q. 32. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs. 10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ? (1) Rs. 3/(2) Rs. 5/(3) Rs. 10/(4) Rs. 20/(5) None of these Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables. Q. 33-35. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest.
Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow : Attribute I Seniority Perseverance Efficiency Intelligence Honesty Sociability 32 14 15 10 24 5 Percent of Employees Giving Different Ranks II 17 19 19 14 17 14 III 22 17 21 10 7 23 IV 19 9 14 14 9 35 V 5 27 14 17 27 10 VI 5 14 17 35 16 13 Q. 33. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ? (1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No. 2) Q. 34. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ? (1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10 Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your answer should be (4). Q. 35. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ? (1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest percentage.
In other words, a majority of people consider it as the least important and give it the last rank. Therefore your answer is (2). General Awareness, Marketing and Computers This test is intended to give an index of your awareness of people and events past and present in different walks of life. Q. 36. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the ‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ? (1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) None of these Q. 37. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in India ? 1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture Q. 38. Which of the following is the state where the number of people living below poverty line is maximum ? (1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa Q. 39. Who is the person closely associated with operation flood programmes and was honoured by Padma Vibhushan recently ? (1) Dr. V. Kurien (2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan (3) Dr. Amartya Sen (4) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (5) None of these 8 Q. 40. Which of the following factors influences buyer’s behaviour ? 1) Cultural and Social factors (2) Economical and external factors (3) Personal and Psychological factors (4) both (1) & (2) Q. 41. Marketing for promotion of business in Banks involves : (2) Customer need identification (1) Better Customer Service (3) Customised products (4) both (1) & (3) (4) 10111 (5) All (1), (2) & (3). (5) 01010 Q. 42. 1010, 0101, 1100, 0011, 11100 ––– what is next ? (1) 00100 (2) 00111 (3) 11100 Q. 43. The function of CPU is ––– (1) to provide external storage of text (3) to create a new software (5) none of these Q. 44. Pick the odd man out. (1) Monitor (2) Keyboard Q. 45.
The full form of LAN is ––– (1) Local Access Network (4) Local Area Node (5) both (1) & (3) (2) to create a hard copy (4) to read, interpret and process the information and instruction (3) Floppy drive (4) Windows (5) Hard-disk drive (3) Long Area Node (2) Local Area Network (5) None of these English Language This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below : Directions : Pick out the most ppropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete it meaningfully. Q. 46. He quickly glanced ………………………… the book to find what it said about the Indian economy. (1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2. Q. 47. The counsel urged the court to ……………………… down the obnoxious law. (1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike Q. 48. The local official ……………………… the Minister of the situation. (1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) declare (5) intimated
Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Q. 49. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. (1) (2) (3) (4) The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’. Q. 50. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. (1) (2) (3) (4) In this question, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is ‘5’. Q. 51. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. 1) (2) (3) (4) No error (5) No error (5) No error (5) Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q. 52. LETHAL (1) light Q. 53. CENTENARY (1) a guard Q. 54. TRIUMPH (1) conquer (2) dangerous (2) a hundred years (2) smash (3) deadly (4) cruel (5) thoughtless (3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture 9 Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q. 55. LIVELY (1) simple Q. 56. INADVERTENT (1) adequate Q. 57. INEPT (1) accurate (2) weak (2) available (2) skilful (3) dull (3) sluggish (3) sensible (4) angry (4) negligent (4) artistic (5) moron (5) intentional (5) apt In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension. The correct answers to all these questions have been provided ahead. Now mark your answers to all the questions given so far in this booklet on the specimen answersheet given below, so that you have practice in answering such tests. The first four answers have been marked for you. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 The correct answers to all these questions are as follows – Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers Questions Answers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 4 4 5 3 3 3 4 3 5 4 2 5 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 1 5 2 4 1 5 3 4 2 1 3 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 5 4 3 5 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 3 5 1 5 5 5 5 1 2 2 4 3 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 1 5 4 3 5 1 5 5 2 HOW TO SHOW YOUR ANSWERS TO OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS : Each question is followed by answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB Pencil, blacken the oval bearing the correct answer against the serial number of the question. Please note that the oval should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, if the answer to Question Number 2 is answer number 5, it is to be shown as follows. 1 2 3 4 Q. 2.
HOW TO CHANGE YOUR ANSWER : If you wish to change your answer, ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened oval by using good quality eraser and then blacken the new oval bearing your revised answer number. While changing the answer, erasing the earlier answer completely is extremely essential. If it is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased oval as shown below and the question will be read as having two answers. Therefore, no marks will be given. Q. 3. 1 2 3 5 (Smudge left in oval No. 3 due to bad erasure and the fresh answer in oval No. 4 will be read as two answers 3 & 4, and therefore no credit will be given even if the answer No. happens to be the correct answer). 10 VERY IMPORTANT : Please note that you SHOULD NOT USE an H, 2H / HH, 3H type Pencil. The marks made by such hard pencil will be too light and will not be read by the computerised machine. Similarly you should NOT use too soft pencils like B/BB/2B etc. HOW TO FILL IN YOUR BIODATA INFORMATION ON THE ANSWERSHEET : Important (1) (2) (3) The information is to be filled in by you in boxes 1-10 and 12-26 on Side 1 and in box 27 on Side 2 of the answersheet. You have to fill in information in boxes 1-10 by using ball point pen. Information in boxes 12-26 on side 1 and 27 on side 2 is to be filled up by using HB pencil only.
How to fill in the information is explained with the help of an example given below : (Filled in Side 1 of the Specimen Answersheet is also enclosed). REMEMBER this is ONLY an example for your guidance. You have to fill up YOUR OWN information on your answersheet. Name of the Candidate Session of Exam Organization Roll No. of the Candidate Registration No. of the candidate Centre for Examination Category Date of Birth Sex Religion : SANTOSH MORE : 8. 00 a. m. : State Bank of India : 7910000055 : 4440007392 : Mumbai : General : 19. 09. 1990 : Male : Hindu Board/ University C. B. S. E. C. B. S. E. Mumbai University Percentage of marks 75 70 73 Medium of Instruction English English English Qualifications : Exam.
Passed Place of School/College Metropolis S. S. C. Metropolis H. S. C. Metropolis B. Com. Annual Family Income Parental Education : : ` 4,25,000 Father – Graduate Mother – Graduate Now please refer to the enclosed Specimen Answersheet while reading the following description. Side 1 Full Name of the Candidate (Box No. 1) : You have to write in capitals your full name in English. See how the candidate has written her name in the space provided by using ball-point pen. Other information (Box No. 2 to 6) : You will find that the information asked for in the boxes from 2 to 6 can be filled in easily. Fill in this information by using ball-point pen.
Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in Boxes 7-9) : Test Booklet Serial Number, Test battery Number and Test Form Number (information required in Boxes 7-9) are printed on the test booklet. You have to copy these numbers using ball point pen from the test booklet on the answersheet which you will receive at the time of examination. Candidate’s Signature (Box No. 10) : Please put your signature using ball point pen. USE HB PENCIL FROM BOX NO. 12 ONWARDS Candidate’s Name (Box No. 12) : There is a row of 10 boxes for writing the name. Just below each box you will find a column of 26 ovals each containing a English letter of the alphabet.
The top oval in each contains a letter ‘A’ whereas the last oval bears ‘Z’. See how the candidate has written her name in capitals by entering one letter in each box using HB pencil, and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Please note that the candidate has left one box and respective column of ovals blank between two parts of her name. If your name contains more letters write only the first letters which you can accommodate in the Boxes provided. 11 Candidate’s Roll Number (Box No. 13) : You will be assigned a 10 digit Roll Number. There is a row of 10 boxes provided to write the Roll Number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0.
See how the candidate has written her Roll Number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. You have to write your Roll Number on the test booklet also in the space provided for it. Test Form No. (Box No. 14) : You will have to write the test form number (3 digits) under item 14. Write each of the digits in the boxes provided and blacken the appropriate ovals by HB pencil. Candidate’s Registration No (Box No. 15) : At the time of online registration you were assigned a 10 digit Regisration Number which has also been mentioned on the call letter. There is a row of 10 boxes provided to write the Registration Number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0.
See how the candidate has written his Registration Number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Version of the Test Used (Box No. 16) : Tests of Reasoning Ability (High Level), Data Analysis and Interpretation, General Awareness/Marketing/Computers are printed both in Hindi and English. You have a choice of referring to the tests in either of the languages. Indicate in the box if the language to which you are referring is Hindi. Date of Birth (Box No. 18) : Date of birth of this candidate is 19. 09. 1990. See how the candidate has entered the date, month and the year in the boxes and darkened the appropriate ovals correctly.
If the date or the month happens to be single digit you should indicate this by prefixing ‘zero’. Discipline Faculty (Box No. 19) : Under ‘discipline’ the candidate has to mark his/her Faculty of Study. viz. Arts, Science, Commerce, Engineering and Technology or Management. If the faculty studied by you is other than these, then indicate as ‘others’. The candidate in our example has studied ‘Commerce’ at both the levels, viz. HSC and Degree. Medium of Instruction (Box No. 20) : In this box, the information about medium of instruction at various levels of study, viz. SSC, (X Std. ), HSC (XII Std. ), Graduation (DEGREE) and Post Graduation (PG) is to be indicated.
The language codes are given below : Code 11 12 13 14 Language Assamese Bengali English Gujarati Code 15 16 17 18 Language Hindi Kannada Kashmiri Malayalam Code 19 20 21 22 Language Marathi Oriya Punjabi Sanskrit Code 23 24 25 26 27 Language Sindhi Tamil Telugu Urdu Other The candidate in our example has studied in English Medium from SSC onwards upto Graduation. Therefore, he has written Code 13 under SSC, HSC and Degree. Also he has blackened the appropriate ovals in the column below each box. Percentage of Marks (Box No. 21) : In this box percentage of marks obtained at each level of examination (rounded off to two digits) is to be indicated.
For each level of examination, two boxes for writing two digits have been provided. Under each boxed space, 10 ovals ranging from 1 to 9 & 0 have been provided for blackening the appropriate oval. In case grades are given by an examining agency, convert the same into equivalent percentages and indicate as above. Place of School/College (Box No. 22) : In this box, the candidate has to indicate, by blackening the appropriate oval, her/his place of study (Village, Tehsil, District, State Capital, Metropolis) for each level of examination (SSC, HSC, Degree, PG). Annual Family Income (Box No. 23) : See how the candidate has blackened the appropriate oval indicating his family income. Parental Education (Box No. 4) : In this box the column 1 indicates level of education, column 2 and 3 are for indicating father’s and mother’s education respectively. Note how the candidate has blackened the respective ovals using HB Pencil. Religion (Box No. 25) : In this box indicate your religion by darkening the appropriate oval using HB pencil. See in the specimen answersheet, how the candidate has darkened the respective oval. Sex (Box No. 26) : See how the candidate has blackened the appropriate oval using HB Pencil. Side 2 : Roll Number (Box No. 27) : You should write your Roll Number by HB pencil in this box at the left hand bottom corner of Side 2 of the answersheet. 12 8. 00 9 9 13 9 14